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Sex on the Period

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  • #16
    Originally posted by Apologiaphoenix View Post
    Why was this to be avoided?

    Link

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    Why did God forbid sex during a woman’s period? Let’s plunge into the Deeper Waters and find out.

    This is one rule that really doesn’t make sense to a lot of us in our modern culture. Why could you not have sex during a woman’s period? Part of the problem that we have with this is that we don’t see the world as the ancients did, not because of something scientific, but because we don’t think of purity that way. At least, we say that we don’t, though in many ways we do.

    Suppose I come over to your house to visit you with a can of unopened soda in my hand. While I sit on your couch talking to you, I open the can and then start pouring it profusely on your couch and carpet. I would not be surprised if you say a various number of words to me and throw me out.

    This isn’t because the damage I have done is anything physically harmful necessarily. It’s more because I have damaged an idea of purity you have about your house.
    "Damaged an idea of purity I have about my house"? NO, it's about the fact that now I'll have to spend time cleaning up after a mindless boob.


    You don’t want a stain to be right there on the carpet even if there was nothing harmful about it. (Even if there is, I suspect most people are worried about the stain instead.) We have a reason why we sell stain removers for our clothes before we go on a date or another social outing.

    This is the same kind of thing behind this command. It’s why the verse refers to her uncleanliness. This is also something that is done intentionally. It’s not an accident that this happens. In some ways, you could call this the sin of the high hand where one openly tries to defile God.
    "Same kind," A woman's period is some kind of mindless, destructive act? You've got to be kidding. Having a period is a natural function of womanhood. Dumping a can of soda on a host's furniture is not.


    So what does that mean for us today?
    Not a thing.


    Well, we don’t live in a society that focuses on ritual purity that way.
    What ritual purity are you talking about? I saw no mention of ritual purity.


    First, assuming one wants to abstain during this time, you are talking about a few days really. If you are someone who cannot go a few days without having sex, you probably have bigger concerns.
    Bigger concerns such as? __________________________________________________ __________ .


    Second, if your wife is in intense pain from her period and is not feeling sexy, you should probably be considerate and not have sex with her then. Personally, any time she doesn’t want to have sex at all you should avoid it. This is just personal consideration.
    Spot on.


    Third, the whole point for them was avoiding blood and this might be something you want to take into consideration as well.
    What point?


    Again, this is something debatable and especially in an age where we can use the pill to avoid the flow of blood that can happen.
    What pill are you talking about? While there are pills that suppress or delay menstruation I don't know of any that will stop it for good, which, I assume, is what you're talking about.


    Of course, even the morality of the pill can be debated.
    What moral issue would that be?




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    • #17
      Originally posted by 3 Resurrections View Post
      Hmmm, only men responding so far...I'll throw in my feminine 2 cents here.

      I strongly suspect that God had ulterior motives for this requirement. What if God was trying to maximize the birthrate of His people to build them up as a nation? What if He gave this law in order to align with a woman's typical ovulation cycle? By the time a woman's period had passed, and the required days of purification after that, she would have generally been entering the time of the month when she was most likely to become pregnant. If God's purpose was to increase the number of children for the Israelite nation so that they would be as numerous "as the sand of the sea", then this law would have been a natural way to increase the odds of that happening.
      Who created that part of the reproductive cycle wherein a fetus regularly dies? Miscarriage didn’t emerge with human beings. Fetal death antedated humanity by eons.

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      • #18
        Originally posted by whag View Post

        Fetal death antedated humanity by eons.
        Ir meh Gird!

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